John 1: 1-5
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was
with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in the beginning with God. 3All things came into being through him, and
without him not one thing came into being. What has come into being 4in him was life, and the life was the
light of all people. 5The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not overcome it.
“Him.” The pronoun continues. This is ‘the Word’, already interpreted to mean Jesus. Jesus was God. Jesus was in the beginning with God-meaning before creation itself. And now he is the Creator. “All things came into being through him, and (to be clear), without him, not one thing came into being.”
The scope of Jesus expands here. If it were just the first two verses, it might
be argued that Jesus was present for creation, on the sidelines, an
observer. Not ‘all’ of God was involved
in creation. But this sentence crushes
that possibility. All things came into
being through Jesus. We know from
Genesis that God created all. The Word,
Jesus, was God, so Jesus is God who created all things. The second half of the sentence looks
reinforcement, ‘without Jesus, not one thing came into being.’ In other words, no exceptions.
It is kind of a resume for Jesus. There are a lot of other names and titles
that will be attached to Jesus: Son of God, Son of Man, Son of David, Son of
Mary….the Messiah, the Christ, the Anointed One…but John is taking pains to
identify Jesus with God, Jesus as God.
What these first three verses of the Gospel of John have done is to take
Jesus and lay him into the original creation story of Genesis 1. First, in the beginning, in this verse, a
summary that Jesus is the creator through the days of creation that follow.
These are three verses and there is a whole Gospel to
follow. John begins by establishing the
pedigree of Jesus in the orders of the creator and the creation. This leads us into Jesus’ role in the present.
Sidebar: Who is John?
Did he write this gospel? So, of
the four gospels, Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, in none of them does the
author self-identify. In the history of
Biblical interpretation, they like to argue about this.
Who is John? There are a number of men named “John” in the Bible,
including Jesus’ own cousin, John the Baptizer.
I understand this John to be the disciple of Jesus, the one who is
listed as the author of four other books of the New Testament, the letters 1
John, 2 John, and 3 John as well as the last book of the Bible, the book of
Revelations.
For some context, if you remember the controversy over the novel “The Da
Vince Code”. The novelist referenced
Leonardo Da Vinci’s painting of the Last Supper and argued that Mary Magdalene
was ‘hidden’ in it. She was next to Jesus,
leaning in on him-a place of intimacy.
History argues that this was John, who is described as ‘beloved of Jesus’-thus
having this place of intimacy. Traditionally,
John was the youngest of the disciples, and-also according to tradition-the
only one of the Twelve who was die naturally, in his old age, while the rest were
martyred.
Who wrote the gospels? It depends on what you assume about the
timeline. Many modern scholars argue that
the gospels were not written until after the lives of the first generation of
Jesus’ believers, thus it could not be those who are named. This argument rests on dating the grammar of our earliest gospel manuscripts. Other
scholars will argue that these are written in the first generation because dating
methods do not offer a particular date, but a range of time. There are also arguments on how the gospels
emerged. Did the authors sit down and
write them? Or were the written forms
based on oral accounts? Is this a single
work or a compilation of works?
To make a long story short (and I am probably too late for that), there
are arguments to be made for these authors and arguments to be made that the
successors of these authors gathered these gospels ‘in the name of’ the
authors, and arguments to be made that these names were attached by tradition
to these writings.
Does it matter? Does it matter who wrote them? They are in the Bible and have been since the
New Testament became the Word of God. Is the importance to be found in whose name
is on the manuscript or its contents?
For me, I question scholarly motives on these things. Does the scholar want to cast doubt on the Bible? Does the scholar want to lock in the Bible
narrative?
Here is what I think. John wrote
John. In Seminary, I learned about
grammatical studies that compared the gospel with the other writings
attributed to John in the New Testament and they match. In terms of the age of the gospels, John is
argued by some to be the last of the gospels written but the earliest dated gospel
fragment (not grammatical age but the age of the physical manuscript) we have is from John. What
bothers me about arguments to make John the last of the written gospels, the
farthest from the ‘actual’ time and experience of Jesus, is that this somehow
makes it less ‘trustworthy’ than the others.
And that is no longer a scholarly debate on the origins of the New Testament,
that’s an attempt to undercut the writings that are the foundation of my faith.
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